Gastroenterology USMLE Practice Questions
GI tract anatomy, physiology, and common pathologies.
4 free gastroenterology practice questions
Pick an answer and check it. After each question you get the same explanation StepGenie students see: the stem decoded clue by clue, the reasoning chain with its infographic, why every wrong option is wrong, and the trap the question was built around. Step 1 questions test mechanism; Step 2 CK questions ask for the next step.
A 22-year-old man presents with a 3-week history of abdominal pain, loose non-bloody stools, intermittent nausea, and intermittent fever. He has no vomiting, tenesmus, or rectal pain. He has no significant past medical history and takes no medications. Vital signs are within normal limits, and rectal examination is unremarkable. Stool occult blood testing and stool studies for infection are negative. CT scan of the abdomen shows mural thickening and surrounding fat stranding involving discrete segments of the terminal ileum and transverse colon. Colonoscopy with biopsy of the affected areas is performed. Which of the following histologic findings is most specific for this patient’s most likely diagnosis?
Correct answer · G
Non-caseating granulomas
Decoding the stem
Step-by-step reasoning
- 1
Segmental involvement of terminal ileum and transverse colon with mural thickening and fat stranding indicates transmural, skip lesions → points toward Crohn disease over ulcerative colitis.
- 2
Symptoms of chronic inflammatory diarrhea (abdominal pain, loose stools, low-grade fever) are classic for IBD, and ileal involvement is typical for Crohn disease.
- 3
Crohn disease shows transmural inflammation, fissuring ulcers, fistulas, and can affect any part of GI tract, especially terminal ileum and colon in a discontinuous pattern.
- 4
While many inflammatory changes occur in IBD, the histologic feature that is most specific to Crohn disease is non-caseating granulomas (though present in a subset of patients).
- 5
Therefore, the biopsy finding that best confirms this patient’s most likely diagnosis (Crohn disease) is non-caseating granulomas.
Why not the others?
A. Neutrophilic inflammation of the crypts
This option implies acute cryptitis/crypt abscesses, which occur in both Crohn disease and ulcerative colitis, BUT it is not specific for Crohn and thus doesn’t uniquely confirm the diagnosis.
B. Inflammation of the terminal ileum
This option implies ileitis, which is common in Crohn disease, BUT ileal inflammation alone is not specific (e.g., infection, NSAID enteropathy); the question asks for the most specific histologic finding.
C. Intranuclear and cytoplasmic inclusion bodies
This option implies viral infection (e.g., CMV colitis), which causes inclusions, BUT the patient’s negative stool studies and segmental transmural disease pattern fit IBD, not primary viral colitis.
D. Inflammation limited to the mucosa and submucosa
This option implies ulcerative colitis, which is classically mucosal/submucosal, BUT this patient has transmural mural thickening and skip lesions, which argue against UC and for Crohn disease.
E. Neutrophil-rich pseudomembranes
This option implies pseudomembranous colitis (C. difficile), which presents with recent antibiotic use and positive stool toxin, BUT this patient’s stool studies are negative and imaging shows segmental transmural ileocolitis instead.
F. Poorly differentiated gland-forming cells with desmoplasia
This option implies adenocarcinoma, which would present with mass lesion, obstruction, or overt bleeding, BUT the CT shows inflammatory mural thickening/fat stranding and the clinical course is inflammatory, not malignant.
Exam trap
Learners may pick generic inflammatory features (cryptitis, ileitis, mucosal inflammation) that occur in many colitides. The question demands the most specific histologic hallmark of Crohn disease—non-caseating granulomas—not just any sign of inflammation.
The bottom line
Crohn disease: transmural, skip lesions (terminal ileum/colon) with non-caseating granulomas—most specific histologic feature.
A 30-year-old woman comes to the physician with a 1-month history of intermittent abdominal pain, flatulence, and watery diarrhea. Her symptoms typically occur 2–3 hours after meals and are particularly prominent after ingestion of dairy-containing foods such as ice cream, cheese, and pizza. She is given an oral lactose load of 50 g. Which of the following changes is most likely to be observed in this patient?
Correct answer · D
Increased stool osmotic gap
Decoding the stem
Step-by-step reasoning
Step 1 of 5
Dairy-triggered bloating, flatulence, watery diarrhea → suspect lactose intolerance from lactase deficiency in small-intestinal brush border.
Step 2 of 5
Without lactase, lactose is not broken to glucose + galactose, so it remains in the intestinal lumen and is not absorbed.
Step 3 of 5
Unabsorbed lactose is osmotically active, pulling water into the lumen → osmotic diarrhea.
Step 4 of 5
Osmotic diarrhea = high concentration of nonabsorbed solutes in stool → increased stool osmotic gap (difference between measured and calculated stool osmolality).
Step 5 of 5
Bacterial fermentation of lactose → short-chain fatty acids and lactic acid → lower stool pH and increased breath hydrogen, confirming malabsorption.
Why not the others?
A. Increased stool pH
This option implies less acid in stool. In carbohydrate malabsorption (like lactose intolerance), bacteria ferment sugars to acids, lowering stool pH, not raising it.
B. Decreased urinary D-xylose concentration
This option implies mucosal damage or decreased absorption (e.g., celiac). D-xylose absorption is normal in isolated lactase deficiency, so urinary D-xylose remains normal.
C. Increased serum glucose concentration
This option implies efficient carbohydrate digestion/absorption. In lactase deficiency, lactose is not split to absorbable monosaccharides, so serum glucose does not rise appropriately after lactose load.
E. Decreased fecal fat content
This option implies improved fat absorption. Lactase deficiency is a carbohydrate-specific brush-border enzyme defect; it does not improve or reduce fat malabsorption, and fecal fat is typically normal.
F. Decreased breath hydrogen content
This option implies less bacterial fermentation. In lactose intolerance, unabsorbed lactose is fermented by colonic bacteria, which increases breath hydrogen, not decreases it.
Exam trap
The vignette strongly hints at lactose intolerance; many will reflexively pick stool pH or breath hydrogen. The question instead tests recognition that osmotic diarrhea → increased stool osmotic gap.
The bottom line
Lactose intolerance → unabsorbed lactose causes osmotic diarrhea with low stool pH, increased stool osmotic gap, normal D-xylose, and ↑ breath hydrogen.
A 46-year-old man is brought to the emergency department with 4 hours of severe, constant epigastric pain that radiates to the back and worsens when lying supine. He has had multiple episodes of greenish vomiting. Two months ago, he completed triple therapy for Helicobacter pylori infection. Medical history is significant for atrial fibrillation and hypertension. He owns a distillery and consumes 4–5 alcoholic drinks daily. Current medications include dabigatran and metoprolol. He appears uncomfortable. Temperature is 37.8°C (100°F), pulse is 102/min, and blood pressure is 138/86 mm Hg. Abdominal examination reveals marked epigastric tenderness with guarding but no rebound; bowel sounds are hypoactive. Rectal examination is normal. Lab Values: - Hematocrit: 53% - Leukocyte count: 11,300/mm³ - Sodium: 133 mEq/L - Chloride: 98 mEq/L - Potassium: 3.1 mEq/L - Calcium: 7.8 mg/dL - Blood urea nitrogen: 43 mg/dL - Glucose: 271 mg/dL - Creatinine: 2.0 mg/dL - Total bilirubin: 0.7 mg/dL - Alkaline phosphatase: 61 U/L - AST: 19 U/L - ALT: 17 U/L - γ-glutamyl transferase (GGT): 88 U/L (normal 5–50 U/L) - Lipase: 900 U/L (normal 14–280 U/L) Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct answer · G
Crystalloid fluid infusion
Decoding the stem
Step-by-step reasoning
- 1
Severe epigastric pain radiating to the back + elevated lipase (>3× normal) → diagnostic for acute pancreatitis.
- 2
History of heavy alcohol use and mildly elevated GGT strongly support alcohol-induced acute pancreatitis.
- 3
Pancreatic inflammation causes increased vascular permeability → third spacing of fluid into retroperitoneum and peripancreatic tissues.
- 4
Third spacing + vomiting → intravascular volume depletion → hemoconcentration (Hct 53%) and elevated BUN/Cr (pre-renal azotemia).
- 5
Early pancreatitis mortality is driven by hypovolemia, shock, and organ failure, so guideline-based first-line management is aggressive IV crystalloid resuscitation.
- 6
No signs of cholangitis, bowel perforation, or ischemia → no immediate indication for surgery, ERCP, or CT angiography; correcting volume status comes first.
Why not the others?
A. CT angiography
This option implies concern for acute mesenteric ischemia or vascular catastrophe, which causes severe pain often out of proportion to exam. BUT this patient has classic pancreatitis pain, markedly elevated lipase, and no atrial fibrillation-related embolic signs; imaging does not precede stabilization with fluids.
B. Calcium gluconate therapy
This option implies treatment of symptomatic hypocalcemia (tetany, seizures, arrhythmias). The patient’s calcium is low from pancreatitis saponification, BUT there are no neuromuscular or cardiac symptoms; initial priority in pancreatitis is volume resuscitation, not empiric calcium replacement.
C. Fomepizole therapy
This option implies toxic alcohol (eg, methanol, ethylene glycol) ingestion, which presents with high anion gap metabolic acidosis, visual changes, or oxalate crystals. BUT this patient’s presentation is classic for alcoholic pancreatitis with elevated lipase and no ingestion history or severe acidosis.
D. Laparotomy
This option implies surgical abdomen (perforation, peritonitis, necrotizing infection). BUT exam shows tenderness with guarding but no rebound or peritoneal signs, stable vitals, and labs consistent with uncomplicated acute pancreatitis, which is managed nonoperatively initially with fluids and supportive care.
E. Endoscopic retrograde cholangio-pancreatography
This option implies gallstone pancreatitis with cholangitis/obstruction (jaundice, elevated bilirubin/ALP). BUT this patient has normal bilirubin and ALP, no RUQ pain or jaundice; his risk factor is alcohol, so urgent ERCP is not indicated.
F. Insulin infusion
This option implies DKA or hyperosmolar state, which present with marked hyperglycemia, acidosis, and often altered mental status. The modest hyperglycemia here is stress-related from pancreatitis, BUT there is no acidosis or DKA picture; insulin is not the immediate priority—fluid resuscitation is.
Exam trap
The prior H pylori therapy, atrial fibrillation, and mild hyperglycemia can distract you toward ulcer disease, mesenteric ischemia, or DKA. Recognizing the classic acute pancreatitis triad (epigastric pain radiating to back, elevated lipase, heavy alcohol use) is key, then recalling that early aggressive IV fluids are the first-line management before imaging or invasive procedures.
The bottom line
Acute alcoholic pancreatitis with systemic inflammatory response requires early, aggressive IV crystalloid fluid resuscitation as the key initial management step.
A 7-day-old girl is brought to the physician due to 4 days of lethargy, vomiting, poor feeding, and diarrhea. She was born at term (39 weeks’ gestation) without complications. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination reveals jaundice with icteric sclerae, bilateral cataracts, and hepatomegaly with the liver palpable 5 cm below the right costal margin. Muscle tone is decreased in all extremities. Serum glucose concentration is 40 mg/dL. Which of the following metabolites is most likely increased in this patient?
Correct answer · D
Galactose-1-phosphate
Decoding the stem
Step-by-step reasoning
Step 1 of 6
Neonate becomes symptomatic a few days after birth with feeding → consider inborn errors that are triggered by lactose (glucose + galactose) in milk.
Step 2 of 6
Features: vomiting, diarrhea, poor feeding, lethargy, hypoglycemia, jaundice, hepatomegaly → point to severe hepatic metabolic toxicity.
Step 3 of 6
Presence of bilateral cataracts in a neonate is a classic clue for galactose metabolism disorders (galactose → galactitol accumulation in lens).
Step 4 of 6
The most severe presentation with liver failure + sepsis risk is classic galactosemia, due to deficiency of galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase (GALT).
Step 5 of 6
GALT deficiency blocks conversion of galactose-1-phosphate to UDP-galactose → causes accumulation of galactose-1-phosphate in tissues (toxic to liver, brain).
Step 6 of 6
Therefore, the metabolite most likely increased in this patient is galactose-1-phosphate.
Why not the others?
A. Sphingomyelin
This option implies Niemann-Pick disease, which causes neurodegeneration, cherry-red macula, hepatosplenomegaly, BUT typically presents later in infancy and is not linked to acute onset after milk feeding or neonatal cataracts.
B. Uric acid
This option implies Lesch-Nyhan syndrome or gout-related pathology, which causes self-mutilation, neurologic deficits, and hyperuricemia, BUT not neonatal jaundice, cataracts, or milk-triggered decompensation.
C. Branched-chain amino acids
This option implies Maple syrup urine disease, which presents with vomiting, poor feeding, lethargy, and sweet-smelling urine, BUT does not cause cataracts or marked jaundice/hepatomegaly from galactose toxicity.
E. Limit dextrins
This option implies a debranching enzyme deficiency (Cori disease), which causes fasting hypoglycemia and hepatomegaly, BUT does not produce neonatal cataracts or clear milk-triggered symptoms; also usually presents a bit later.
Exam trap
Cataracts may make students recall isolated galactokinase deficiency, which is milder and lacks severe liver failure. Here, systemic illness (jaundice, hypoglycemia, hepatomegaly) indicates classic galactosemia with galactose-1-phosphate accumulation, not just galactose/galactitol alone.
The bottom line
Classic galactosemia (GALT deficiency) → ↑ galactose-1-phosphate, neonatal jaundice, cataracts, vomiting, hypoglycemia, hepatomegaly after milk exposure.
Source: StepGenie question bank. Questions are written by StepGenie, not taken from NBME or USMLE materials, and are chosen for this page by how students actually performed on them (first-attempt accuracy on StepGenie). Selection last refreshed September 5, 2026.
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About Gastroenterology
Comprehensive coverage of digestive system anatomy, hepatobiliary disorders, inflammatory bowel disease, GI malignancies, and nutrition. Master the approach to abdominal pain, diarrhea, and liver function tests.
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Gastroenterology — Frequently Asked Questions
How do you tell Crohn disease from ulcerative colitis on the USMLE?
Crohn disease can involve any part of the gut from mouth to anus, spares segments to produce skip lesions, is transmural, and forms fistulas, strictures and non-caseating granulomas. Ulcerative colitis begins at the rectum and spreads continuously, stays limited to the mucosa and submucosa, and raises colon cancer risk with duration and extent of disease.
What are the highest-yield GI topics for the USMLE?
Inflammatory bowel disease, the viral hepatitis serologies, cirrhosis and its complications including portal hypertension, upper versus lower GI bleeding, pancreatitis, and colorectal cancer screening. Liver function test patterns tie several of these together, so learning to read an AST, ALT, alkaline phosphatase and bilirubin panel as a pattern is high value.
How do you interpret hepatitis B serologies?
Surface antigen means the virus is present, so its presence indicates active infection. Surface antibody means immunity from either vaccination or cleared infection. Core antibody separates the two, because it appears only after natural infection, never after vaccination. E antigen indicates high replication and high infectivity. Reading them in that order resolves most vignettes.
What distinguishes an upper from a lower GI bleed?
Hematemesis or coffee-ground vomiting indicates a source above the ligament of Treitz. Melena, the black tarry stool produced by digested blood, also suggests an upper source. Bright red blood per rectum usually indicates a lower source, though a brisk upper bleed can present that way, which is why hemodynamic instability with hematochezia still warrants upper endoscopy.
Are the gastroenterology practice questions on this page free?
Yes. The 4 questions above come from StepGenie's question bank and can be answered here without an account, with the full explanation shown after each one. From the link under the set you can try three more Gastroenterology questions in the dashboard preview, also without an account; a free account is what lets you choose the system and keep going.