Pediatrics USMLE Practice Questions
Child development, pediatric diseases, and neonatology.
5 free pediatrics practice questions
Pick an answer and check it. After each question you get the same explanation StepGenie students see: the stem decoded clue by clue, the reasoning chain with its infographic, why every wrong option is wrong, and the trap the question was built around. Step 1 questions test mechanism; Step 2 CK questions ask for the next step.
A 16-year-old girl presents for a routine health maintenance visit; her last visit was over a year ago. She had menarche at age 12, and her last menstrual period was 4 months ago. She is a member of the school gymnastics team and is currently training intensively for an upcoming competition. She is 165 cm (5 ft 5 in) tall and weighs 45 kg (99 lb), with a BMI of 16.5 kg/m². Vital signs show a temperature of 36.8°C (98.2°F), pulse of 53/min, and blood pressure of 98/64 mm Hg. Physical examination reveals yellowish discoloration of the skin, bilateral soft, symmetric parotid enlargement, and thickened skin over the dorsal aspect of the right hand. The patient is most likely to develop which of the following complications?
Correct answer · F
Fractures
Decoding the stem
Step-by-step reasoning
- 1
Low BMI, amenorrhea, athletic overtraining, and signs of purging indicate an eating disorder (anorexia with bulimic behaviors) causing low energy availability.
- 2
Low caloric intake and stress ↓ hypothalamic GnRH → ↓ LH/FSH → low estrogen (functional hypothalamic amenorrhea).
- 3
Estrogen normally protects bone by inhibiting osteoclast-mediated resorption; low estrogen accelerates bone loss and decreases bone mineral density.
- 4
In adolescents, this impairs peak bone mass acquisition, predisposing to osteopenia/osteoporosis at a young age.
- 5
Decreased bone density increases risk of stress fractures and fragility fractures, making fractures the most likely complication.
Why not the others?
A. Aortic valve regurgitation
This option implies aortic root dilation (e.g., Marfan, rheumatic disease), which causes a diastolic murmur and bounding pulses, BUT this patient’s findings center on malnutrition and purging, not connective tissue or valvular disease.
B. Recurrent infections
This option implies immune deficiency (e.g., neutropenia, HIV, asplenia). While severe malnutrition can impair immunity, the most classic and high-yield complication in this adolescent with hypothalamic amenorrhea is low bone density and fractures, not recurrent infections.
C. Ovarian cancer
This option implies a malignant ovarian neoplasm (often in older women, family history, or BRCA mutations). Amenorrhea from hypothalamic suppression and low BMI does not increase ovarian cancer risk; instead it lowers estrogen exposure.
D. Hyperphosphatemia
This option implies renal failure or massive cell lysis. In eating disorders, especially with vomiting and malnutrition, you more commonly see hypophosphatemia (especially in refeeding syndrome), not hyperphosphatemia.
E. Hyperkalemia
This option implies impaired renal excretion or tissue breakdown. Purging with vomiting or laxative/diuretic abuse more typically causes hypokalemia, BUT the stem specifically points to a purging-type eating disorder, making hyperkalemia unlikely.
G. Shortened QT interval
This option implies hypercalcemia. Eating disorders with malnutrition and vomiting more commonly cause electrolyte deficits (e.g., hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia) and prolonged QT, not shortened QT from hypercalcemia.
H. Hyperthyroidism
This option implies weight loss with tachycardia, heat intolerance, hyperreflexia. This patient is bradycardic and hypotensive with low BMI and amenorrhea from hypothalamic suppression, which are seen in starvation/anorexia, not hyperthyroidism.
Exam trap
Students may focus on athletic status and low weight and jump to cardiovascular or endocrine complications like hyperthyroidism; the key association in the Female Athlete Triad is hypothalamic amenorrhea → low estrogen → bone loss and fractures.
The bottom line
Anorexia nervosa with functional hypothalamic amenorrhea causes low estrogen → decreased bone mineral density → increased risk of stress and fragility fractures.
A 2-year-old boy with a history of recurrent respiratory infections is brought to the physician for follow-up. His height and weight are at the 20th percentile for age. On pulmonary examination, there are crackles in both lower lung fields. Cardiac auscultation reveals a grade 3/6 holosystolic murmur at the left lower sternal border and a low-pitched diastolic rumble best heard at the cardiac apex. If left untreated, this patient is most likely to develop which of the following?
Correct answer · E
Digital clubbing
Decoding the stem
Step-by-step reasoning
- 1
Holosystolic murmur at left lower sternal border + diastolic rumble at apex → strongly suggests hemodynamically significant VSD with high left-to-right shunt.
- 2
Left-to-right shunt sends excess blood to pulmonary circulation → pulmonary overcirculation → pulmonary congestion → recurrent respiratory infections and crackles.
- 3
Chronic pulmonary congestion and eventual vascular remodeling can lead to chronic hypoxemia, especially as pulmonary disease progresses.
- 4
Chronic hypoxemia and long-standing pulmonary pathology stimulate growth factors (e.g., PDGF, VEGF) → digital clubbing of fingers and toes.
- 5
Therefore, if the VSD and pulmonary overcirculation are left untreated, the child is most likely to develop digital clubbing.
Why not the others?
A. Myocardial ischemia
This option implies coronary artery disease causing angina/MI, which occurs in older patients with atherosclerotic risk factors, BUT this is a 2-year-old with congenital shunt physiology, not coronary disease.
B. Thrombocytosis
This option implies reactive or myeloproliferative platelet increase, which can follow inflammation or iron deficiency, BUT chronic left-to-right shunt and pulmonary congestion classically lead to clubbing and pulmonary hypertension, not isolated thrombocytosis as the key complication.
C. Secondary hypertension
This option suggests renal disease or endocrine causes of high systemic blood pressure, BUT the main hemodynamic issue here is increased pulmonary blood flow and possible pulmonary hypertension, not systemic secondary hypertension as the primary expected complication.
D. Aortic dissection
This option implies connective tissue disease or severe uncontrolled hypertension in adults, BUT aortic dissection is extremely rare in a 2-year-old and is not a recognized complication of isolated VSD with pulmonary overcirculation.
F. Chronic kidney disease
This option implies chronic glomerular or systemic disease (e.g., diabetes, reflux nephropathy), BUT there are no renal findings (edema, hematuria, abnormal creatinine) and VSD with lung disease primarily causes pulmonary and cardiac complications like clubbing, not primary CKD.
Exam trap
The recurrent infections and crackles may tempt you to think only about lung disease; however, the key is recognizing VSD murmurs and linking chronic hypoxemia to digital clubbing as the classic long-term consequence.
The bottom line
Unrepaired VSD with chronic pulmonary overcirculation → recurrent infections + crackles + murmurs → chronic hypoxemia → digital clubbing.
A 5-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department for intermittent crampy abdominal pain. He has had no fever, vomiting, diarrhea, or dysuria. His last bowel movement was 3 days ago. His mother reports he strains to pass large, hard stools and often tries to hold them in by crossing his legs and standing on tiptoes; there are occasional streaks of bright red blood on the toilet paper. He appears uncomfortable but nontoxic. Vitals: temperature 37.2°C (99°F), blood pressure 108/76 mm Hg, pulse 110/min, respirations 20/min. The abdomen is mildly distended and tympanic with active bowel sounds and no guarding or rebound. A firm stool mass is palpable in the left lower quadrant. Digital rectal examination reveals a hard stool bolus in the rectal vault and a small posterior midline anal fissure. Testicular examination is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct answer · A
Administer polyethyelene glycol
Decoding the stem
Step-by-step reasoning
- 1
Child has chronic history of large, hard stools and active withholding behaviors → points to functional constipation, not acute surgical abdomen.
- 2
Exam shows distended but soft abdomen, active bowel sounds, and firm stool in LLQ and rectal vault → confirms fecal loading/impaction.
- 3
Small posterior midline anal fissure explains the bright red blood; fissures are common complications of hard stool in constipation.
- 4
He is afebrile, nontoxic, hemodynamically stable, and has no peritoneal signs → no evidence of sepsis, obstruction, or perforation.
- 5
First-line treatment for pediatric functional constipation with impaction is osmotic laxative (oral polyethylene glycol) to soften and clear stool.
- 6
Dietary fiber/fluids help prevention and maintenance but do not acutely relieve fecal impaction.
Why not the others?
B. Recommend increased dietary fiber and fluids
This option implies mild constipation managed with lifestyle changes, which helps prevention, BUT the child already has significant fecal impaction requiring pharmacologic disimpaction first (polyethylene glycol).
C. Administer a normal saline bolus
This option implies dehydration or shock, which would cause poor perfusion, tachycardia with hypotension, dry mucous membranes; BUT this child is hemodynamically stable with a clear mechanical problem—fecal impaction.
D. Obtain an abdominal contrast enema
This option implies concern for Hirschsprung disease or obstruction, which would present with delayed meconium, chronic severe constipation from infancy, or bilious vomiting; BUT this child has a typical history of functional constipation with stool withholding and normal exam aside from stool burden.
E. Start empirical broad-spectrum antibiotics
This option implies infection or sepsis (fever, toxicity, peritoneal signs), BUT he is afebrile, nontoxic, and his symptoms are mechanical from constipation, not infectious.
F. Proceed with emergent exploratory laparotomy
This option implies an acute surgical abdomen (peritonitis, severe tenderness, guarding, rebound, absent bowel sounds), BUT his abdomen is only mildly distended with active bowel sounds and no guarding or rebound, and a clear cause—hard stool—is identified.
Exam trap
The vignette mentions abdominal pain, distension, and blood, tempting you to think obstruction or surgical emergency. Recognizing classic functional constipation with fissure prevents overordering imaging or surgery; focus on the benign exam and stool burden, leading to polyethylene glycol as first-line therapy.
The bottom line
Functional constipation with anal fissure in a well-appearing child is treated first-line with oral polyethylene glycol for disimpaction and maintenance.
A 2-year-old girl who recently emigrated from Pakistan is brought to the emergency department due to a 1-day history of lower extremity weakness. She had a self-limited, 3-day, flu-like illness 1 week ago. The patient has not received any routine childhood immunizations. On neurologic examination, deep tendon reflexes are 1+ in the right lower extremity and absent in the left lower extremity. Cerebrospinal fluid analysis shows a leukocyte count of 38 cells/mm³ (68% lymphocytes), protein concentration of 49 mg/dL, and glucose concentration of 60 mg/dL. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
Correct answer · B
Poliomyelitis
Decoding the stem
Step-by-step reasoning
- 1
Child is unvaccinated and from Pakistan, an area historically associated with wild-type poliovirus → raises suspicion for polio if neurologic signs appear.
- 2
Recent flu-like illness represents the initial viremic phase of poliovirus, which often presents with nonspecific symptoms.
- 3
After viremia, poliovirus can invade the anterior horn cells of the spinal cord, causing motor neuron destruction.
- 4
Anterior horn cell loss produces lower motor neuron signs: flaccid paralysis, weakness, decreased/absent deep tendon reflexes, with no sensory loss.
- 5
The paralysis is asymmetric (different reflexes/weakness in each leg), a key feature distinguishing polio from symmetric demyelinating neuropathies (e.g., GBS).
- 6
CSF with mild lymphocytic pleocytosis, normal glucose, and near-normal protein is typical of viral infection, fitting poliovirus meningitis/myelitis.
- 7
Combining risk factors (unvaccinated, endemic region), viral CSF, and asymmetric LMN paralysis → Poliomyelitis is the most likely diagnosis.
Why not the others?
A. Coxsackie meningitis
This option implies viral meningitis with headache, photophobia, and meningeal signs, BUT this child has focal asymmetric motor weakness and decreased reflexes, not meningeal symptoms.
C. HSV encephalitis
This option implies encephalitis with altered mental status, seizures, focal cortical signs, and temporal lobe involvement, BUT this patient is alert with isolated spinal motor deficits and no mental status changes.
D. Botulism
This option implies toxin-mediated neuromuscular blockade causing descending symmetric paralysis, cranial nerve palsies, and autonomic signs, BUT this patient has asymmetric lower extremity weakness post-viral illness, not descending paralysis or bulbar findings.
E. Tetanus
This option implies spastic paralysis with muscle rigidity, trismus (lockjaw), and painful spasms due to inhibitory interneuron blockade, BUT this patient has flaccid paralysis with decreased reflexes, not rigidity or spasms.
F. Guillain-Barre syndrome
This option implies acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy with symmetric ascending weakness and areflexia plus albuminocytologic dissociation in CSF (high protein, few cells), BUT this patient has asymmetric weakness and a cellular (lymphocytic) CSF with near-normal protein.
Exam trap
The viral CSF pattern may tempt you to pick any viral meningitis/encephalitis (e.g., Coxsackie, HSV). The key is integrating epidemiology (unvaccinated, Pakistan) and pattern of paralysis (asymmetric LMN), which specifically points to poliomyelitis, not a generic viral meningitis.
The bottom line
Poliomyelitis: unvaccinated child from endemic region, recent flu-like illness, asymmetric flaccid paralysis, decreased reflexes, lymphocytic CSF with normal glucose/protein.
A 14-year-old girl is brought to the clinic due to recurrent leg cramping and pain during school sports activities. She is short for her age, measuring at the 10th percentile for height. Blood pressure is 155/90 mm Hg. Physical examination reveals a high-arched palate with dental malocclusion, a low posterior hairline, and a broad chest with widely spaced nipples. Pelvic examination shows normal external female genitalia with scant pubic hair. Without appropriate treatment, this patient is at greatest risk of developing which of the following complications?
Correct answer · B
Osteoporosis
Decoding the stem
Step-by-step reasoning
- 1
Physical features (short stature, broad chest with widely spaced nipples, low posterior hairline, high-arched palate) strongly indicate Turner syndrome (45,XO).
- 2
Turner syndrome causes streak ovaries and primary ovarian failure → markedly decreased estrogen levels.
- 3
Estrogen normally inhibits osteoclasts and maintains bone density; loss of estrogen removes this protective effect.
- 4
Therefore, patients with Turner syndrome develop accelerated bone resorption and low bone mineral density at an early age.
- 5
Without appropriate estrogen replacement, this patient is at high risk for early-onset osteoporosis and fragility fractures.
Why not the others?
A. Pulmonary stenosis
This option implies congenital heart disease such as that seen in Noonan syndrome, which can resemble Turner but typically has pulmonic stenosis, NOT the Turner stigmata in this patient.
C. Severe acne
This option implies androgen excess (e.g., PCOS, congenital adrenal hyperplasia), which would cause hirsutism and heavy menses, BUT this patient has ovarian failure signs, not hyperandrogenism.
D. Hyperphagia
This suggests Prader-Willi syndrome (hyperphagia, obesity, hypotonia), BUT our patient has specific Turner stigmata and hypertension, not obesity or developmental delay features.
E. Ectopia lentis
This implies Marfan syndrome or homocystinuria, which present with tall stature, lens dislocation, and connective tissue features, BUT this girl is short with Turner-specific physical findings.
F. Alzheimer disease
This is classically associated with ApoE4, Down syndrome (trisomy 21), and advanced age; Turner syndrome mainly predisposes to cardiovascular and bone complications, not early Alzheimer disease.
Exam trap
Students may focus on hypertension and pick a purely cardiac complication or confuse Turner with other genetic syndromes. The question instead targets ovarian failure → low estrogen → osteoporosis.
The bottom line
Turner syndrome (45,XO) with ovarian failure → ↓estrogen → ↑osteoclast activity → early osteoporosis and fracture risk.
Source: StepGenie question bank. Questions are written by StepGenie, not taken from NBME or USMLE materials, and are chosen for this page by how students actually performed on them (first-attempt accuracy on StepGenie). Selection last refreshed September 5, 2026.
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About Pediatrics
Pediatric medicine from newborn to adolescence, covering developmental milestones, congenital disorders, pediatric infections, and preventive care. Learn age-specific presentations of common diseases.
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Pediatrics study guides
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Edwards Syndrome (Trisomy 18): Features vs 13 and 21
Edwards syndrome is easiest to spot by the clenched hands, rocker-bottom feet, and prominent occiput. The payoff is knowing why Down and Patau are wrong.
Ebstein Anomaly USMLE Question: Lithium, WPW & Atrialized RV
A cyanotic newborn with an LLSB holosystolic murmur, cardiomegaly, and peaked P waves points to Ebstein anomaly, not TOF or other congenital look-alikes.
Eisenmenger Syndrome USMLE Question: Shunt Reversal
Eisenmenger syndrome becomes cyanotic only after chronic left-to-right shunting raises pulmonary resistance enough to reverse flow. Learn the clues and traps.
ASD Types: Secundum vs Primum vs Sinus Venosus vs PFO
ASDs share fixed wide S2 splitting, but the lesion’s location points to the diagnosis. Use this table to link each type with Down syndrome, PAPVR, and paradoxical emboli.
Patau Syndrome (Trisomy 13): Signs, Causes & USMLE Question
Patau syndrome is easiest to spot by the midline defects and postaxial polydactyly. This stem shows why rocker-bottom feet alone should not push you to trisomy 18.
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Pediatrics — Frequently Asked Questions
How should developmental milestones be studied for Step 2 CK?
Learn the anchor ages rather than every milestone. Knowing what a child should do at two, six, nine, twelve, eighteen and twenty-four months covers most questions, because vignettes usually ask whether a child is delayed rather than for an exact age. Loss of previously acquired skills is always abnormal and points toward a regression syndrome.
Which congenital heart defects are cyanotic?
The classic cyanotic lesions are truncus arteriosus, transposition of the great arteries, tricuspid atresia, tetralogy of Fallot and total anomalous pulmonary venous return. Acyanotic lesions are the left-to-right shunts: ventricular septal defect, atrial septal defect and patent ductus arteriosus, which can later reverse to become cyanotic if pulmonary hypertension develops.
What neonatal jaundice findings are concerning?
Jaundice in the first twenty-four hours of life is always pathological and requires workup for hemolysis, sepsis or metabolic disease. Physiologic jaundice appears after the first day, peaks around days three to five and resolves. Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia is never physiologic and points to biliary atresia or another obstructive or hepatic cause requiring prompt evaluation.
How do you approach a pediatric respiratory distress vignette?
Use age and the sound. Barking cough with inspiratory stridor in a toddler suggests croup. Drooling with a toxic appearance and no cough suggests epiglottitis. Wheezing in an infant during winter suggests bronchiolitis. Sudden onset in a previously well toddler with unilateral findings suggests foreign body aspiration.
Are the pediatrics practice questions on this page free?
Yes. The 5 questions above come from StepGenie's question bank and can be answered here without an account, with the full explanation shown after each one. From the link under the set you can try three more Pediatrics questions in the dashboard preview, also without an account; a free account is what lets you choose the system and keep going.